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MCCQE Test Questions Vce | MCCQE Reliable Exam Simulations

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Medical Council of Canada MCCQE Part 1 Exam Sample Questions (Q79-Q84):

NEW QUESTION # 79
A 42-year-old businessman known to have type 2 diabetes and ischemic heart disease is admitted to hospital with acute coronary syndrome. He admits to drinking 4 beers a day for the last 6 years and to binge drinking twice a year when his school buddies are in town. Your chart review reveals that he had a seizure secondary to alcohol withdrawal during his last admission. Which one of the following elements of his history puts him at highest risk of having another such seizure?

A. His medical comorbidities.
B. The number of years he has consumed alcohol.
C. His previous episode of alcohol withdrawal.
D. The quantity of alcohol he consumes daily.
E. His binge drinking.

Answer: C

Explanation:
A history of previous alcohol withdrawal seizures is the single greatest predictor of future withdrawal seizures. This establishes a sensitization response within the central nervous system.
Toronto Notes 2023 - Addiction Medicine:
"A prior history of alcohol withdrawal seizures is the most important risk factor for recurrent seizures during future withdrawal episodes." MCCQE1 Objectives (Internal Medicine > Substance Use > 58-3):
"Candidates must identify individuals at high risk for severe alcohol withdrawal based on past withdrawal history, including seizures and delirium tremens." Although quantity, duration, and comorbidities contribute to risk, a prior withdrawal seizure most strongly predicts recurrence.

NEW QUESTION # 80
An otherwise healthy 43-year-old woman presents to your clinic for a left breast mass. Six months ago, she underwent a bilateral breast magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) after watching a television program on breast cancer prevention. An ultrasound-guided biopsy of a 1.5 cm massconfirmed, at the time, that she had fibroadenoma. The follow-up ultrasound now reveals a mass measuring 1.7 cm. Which one of the following is the best next step in the management of this patient?

A. Repeat the biopsy to confirm the diagnosis.
B. Order a MRI of both breasts to rule out anything else.
C. Reassure the patient and reassess in 12 months.
D. Administer prophylactic tamoxifen to decrease the risk of cancer.
E. Proceed with needle-localized left lumpectomy.

Answer: C

Explanation:
Fibroadenomas can grow slightly or fluctuate in size. A minimal increase (from 1.5 cm to 1.7 cm) over six months is clinically insignificant. No malignant features are reported, and the previous biopsy confirmed benign nature. Annual follow-up is appropriate.
Toronto Notes 2023 - Obstetrics and Gynecology, "Breast Disorders" Section:
"Fibroadenomas are benign breast masses that may slightly enlarge. Routine imaging follow-up at 6 to 12 months is appropriate for lesions with benign imaging and histology." MCCQE1 Objectives (Obstetrics and Gynecology > 82-3: Breast Mass):
"Candidates must distinguish between benign and suspicious masses and determine appropriate intervals for follow-up imaging." Repeat biopsy (A) or surgery (B) is unwarranted without suspicious change. MRI (C) is not needed in stable, benign lesions. Tamoxifen (D) is not used for fibroadenomas.

NEW QUESTION # 81
A 43-year-old man comes to your office for the first time. He has not seen a doctor in over 5 years and has no known past medical history. On examination, his blood pressure is 120/70 mm Hg, and the remainder of his examination is normal. As part of the initial visit, you order some screening blood work that reveals a fasting blood glucose of 6.3 mmol/L (3.3-5.8) and a hemoglobin A1c of 6.1% (4-6). Which one of the following is the best next step?

A. Order a urine albumin:creatinine ratio.
B. Perform a 75 g oral glucose tolerance test.
C. Order an exercise stress test.
D. Test capillary blood glucose 4 times a day.
E. Order thyrotroph (thyroid-stimulating hormone) level.

Answer: B

Explanation:
This patient's lab results suggest impaired fasting glucose and an elevated A1c just below the threshold for diabetes. The gold standard to confirm diabetes in such intermediate cases is the 75 g oral glucose tolerance test (OGTT).
Toronto Notes 2023 - Endocrinology, "Diabetes Mellitus" Section:
"If A1c is in the 6.0-6.4% range or fasting glucose 6.1-6.9 mmol/L, a 75 g OGTT is recommended to establish the diagnosis of diabetes or confirm impaired glucose tolerance." MCCQE1 Objectives (Internal Medicine > 76-4: Diabetes):
"Candidates must correctly apply diabetes screening and diagnostic criteria and follow up abnormal results with appropriate confirmatory testing." Urine ACR (C) is useful in diagnosed diabetes, not for initial screening. TSH (A), capillary glucose testing (B), and exercise testing (E) are not indicated at this stage.

NEW QUESTION # 82
An 8-year-old girl is brought by her father to the office with a 2-week history of red, itchy, and watery eyes.
She is otherwise healthy. On examination, there is no discharge or difficulty with vision. Pupil examination findings are normal. The patient's eyes are shown in the referenced photo. Which one of the following topical therapies is the best recommendation?

A. Antifungal.
B. Antihistamine.
C. Antiviral.
D. Glucocorticoid.
E. Antibiotic.

Answer: B

Explanation:
This child presents with bilateral red, itchy, watery eyes for 2 weeks without purulent discharge, pain, or visual changes-classic features of allergic conjunctivitis . MCCQE objectives emphasize distinguishing allergic conjunctivitis from infectious causes. Allergic conjunctivitis is characterized by pruritus (key symptom), tearing, conjunctival injection, and often a history of atopy or seasonal triggers. Vision remains normal, and there is no mucopurulent discharge (which would suggest bacterial infection) or vesicular lesions
/dendritic ulcers (suggesting viral/herpetic causes).
Topical antihistamines (often combined with mast cell stabilizers) are first-line therapy and effectively reduce itching and redness by blocking histamine-mediated inflammation.
Topical antibiotics are unnecessary without bacterial features. Antivirals are reserved for suspected herpetic disease. Antifungals are rarely indicated in routine conjunctivitis. Topical glucocorticoids are not first-line and may cause adverse effects (e.g., increased intraocular pressure) and should only be used under ophthalmologic supervision.
Therefore, a topical antihistamine is the most appropriate initial treatment.

NEW QUESTION # 83
A 31-year-old man presents with nocturnal non-exertional chest pain. During an exercise stress test, he does not experience chest pain, and there are no significant ST segment changes on the electrocardiogram. He achieves 17 metabolic equivalent of task (MET), a blood pressure of 190/96 mm Hg (resting blood pressure of
130/80 mm Hg), and a maximum heart rate of 162/min (85% of age-predicted maximum). Which one of the following is the most appropriate next step?

A. Offer reassurance
B. Prescribe hydrochlorothiazide
C. Prescribe acetylsalicylic acid and metoprolol
D. Advise against vigorous exercise
E. Schedule cardiac catheterization

Answer: B

Explanation:
Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation:
This patient demonstrates excellent exercise tolerance (17 METs) and no ischemic changes or exertional symptoms, which makes cardiac ischemia unlikely. However, the hypertensive response to exercise (BP >
190 systolic) indicates masked or latent hypertension. This should be managed proactively, typically starting with a thiazide.
Toronto Notes 2023 - Cardiology:
"An exaggerated hypertensive response during exercise is predictive of future hypertension. Treatment with antihypertensive agents such as thiazides may be warranted." MCCQE1 Objectives (Internal Medicine > 31-1: Hypertension and Risk Management):
"Candidates must identify abnormal BP responses to exercise and initiate appropriate treatment." Reassurance alone (A) ignores the hypertensive response. Catheterization (C) and beta-blockers (D) are unnecessary without ischemia. Advising against exercise (B) is counterproductive in a young, otherwise healthy patient.
-

NEW QUESTION # 84
......

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